Information for Candidates PET
Information for Candidates
Preliminary English Test
Why take the Preliminary English Test (PET)?
If you can deal with everyday written and spoken communications (e.g. read simple
books and articles, write simple personal letters, make notes during a meeting), then the
Preliminary English Test (PET) from Cambridge ESOL is the exam for you.
PET is the second level Cambridge ESOL exam. It is an intermediate level exam, at Level
B1 of the Council of Europe’s Common European Framework of Reference for Languages.
PET is a valuable qualification if you want to work or study abroad or to develop a career
in international business.
Studying for PET is a popular way to improve your language skills and use them in a
wide range of contexts. PET covers the four main language skills – reading, writing,
listening and speaking, using material from real life situations. It develops practical
skills, which will be of use in clerical, secretarial and managerial jobs, and in many
industries, such as tourism, where contact with English speakers is required.
PET is available in two formats. You can take the paper and pencil test, or you can take a
computer-based version called CB-PET instead. Please contact your nearest local centre
for details.
Why take a Cambridge ESOL exam?
Develop effective communication skills
• The Cambridge ESOL examinations cover all four language skills – listening, speaking,
reading and writing. They include a range of tasks which assess your ability to use
English, so that you develop the full range of skills you need to communicate
effectively in a variety of contexts.
• Cambridge ESOL examinations are backed by extensive research and
comprehensively trialled to make sure that you get the fairest, most accurate
assessment of your ability and that they are most relevant to the range of uses for
which you need English.
• Universities and employers all over the world recognize Cambridge ESOL exams as a
measure of your achievement in English. Whether you are hoping to study
architecture in Australia or work in IT in Italy, a Cambridge ESOL examination is a
valuable stamp in your passport to success.
University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations (Cambridge ESOL) offers the world’s leading
range of qualifications for learners and teachers of English. Around 1.75 million people
in 135 countries take Cambridge ESOL exams each year.
What does PET involve?
This booklet is a brief introduction to PET. We show examples from each part of the test,
but in some cases we do not show the full text or all the questions.
The table below shows the different parts of PET and how long each paper takes. In PET,
Reading and Writing are combined on one question paper.
* 2 examiners, 2 candidates (2:3 format is used for the last group in a session where necessary)
Name of paper Content Time allowed Marks (% of total)
Paper 1
Reading and Writing
Reading: 5 parts/35 questions
Writing: 3 parts/7 questions
1 hour 30 minutes Reading: 25%
Writing: 25%
Paper 2
Listening
4 parts/25 questions about 35 minutes (including
6 minutes’ transfer time)
25%
Paper 3
Speaking
4 parts 10–12 minutes per pair of
candidates (2:2 format*)
25%
Paper 1 Reading and Writing
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Reading
Part 1 (Questions 1–5)
In the first part of the Reading paper you have to read and understand different kinds of
short texts. These may be notices and signs, packaging information (for example
instructions on a food package or a label on a medicine bottle) and communicative
messages (notes, e-mails, cards and postcards).
In the example below you can see two typical examples of the type of question you will
find in Part 1. Read the text and decide which is the best answer (A, B or C). In the exam
there are three more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Questions 6–10)
In Part 2 you will find five descriptions of people. There are then eight short texts on a
particular topic. This may be goods and services of some kind (for example, purchasing
books, visiting museums, staying in hotels or choosing holidays). You have to match
each person to one of the texts.
Part 3 (Questions 11–20)
In Part 3 you have to read a longer, factual text and look for precise information. The
texts may be brochure extracts, advertisements in magazines and website information.
Before you read the text, there are ten questions which are single-sentence statements
about the text. You have to decide whether each statement is correct or not correct.
Writing
Part 1 (Questions 1–5)
There are five questions to answer in Part 1 of the Writing paper. For each question, you
have one sentence which is complete and a second sentence which has a missing word
or words. You have to complete the second sentence with between one and three words
so that it means the same as the first sentence. All five sentences share a common
theme or topic.
Paper 2 Listening
Time: approx. 35 minutes including 6 minutes’ transfer time
Part 1 (Questions 1–7)
In this part of the test, there are seven short listening texts taken from daily life. These
may be conversations at home or between friends, radio announcements, parts of talks,
exchanges in shops, etc. For each text there is a question and three pictures. You have to
listen to the recording and choose the picture which best answers the question.
Below we give you two examples of typical questions. Read each question and look at
the pictures to get an idea of the kind of conversations which are on the recording and
the information you will need to listen for. You have to choose the right answer
(A, B or C). In the exam, there are five more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Questions 8–13)
In Part 2 you have to listen to a longer recording which may be either a monologue, or an
interview with questions from a radio presenter. You hear the recording twice. There are
then six multiple-choice questions with three possible answers for each one.
In the example below, the recording is a review of tonight’s television programmes. You
have to listen and choose the right answer (A, B or C) for each question (8–10). In the
exam, there are three more questions like the ones below.
1 What does the man receive in the post?
AB C
2 What did the man buy?
AB C
8 The film about insects is A badly photographed.
B unsuitable for some people.
C much too long.
9 Tonight's Miller and Edwards A has fewer jokes than usual.
programme B is longer than usual.
C is continued next week.
10 Policewatch is not on television A another programme has taken its place.
tonight because B Andy McKay is ill.
C you can’t see it on Thursdays any more.
pet information for candidates 9
Part 3 (Questions 14–19)
The recording for Part 3 is also a longer text. This may be a radio announcement or a
recorded message which gives information about places and events. Sometimes it is a
talk or a radio programme, in which people are talking about courses, trips or holiday
activities. You will hear the recording twice. On the question paper you will find a page
of notes summarising the content of the text. Six pieces of information are missing from
the notes and you have to listen to the recording, find the correct information and write
it in the numbered gaps.
In the example below, the recording is of a tour guide talking to some guests at their
hotel. There are six spaces (14–19) where information is missing. You have to listen to
the recording and write down the correct information in each space.
Part 4 (Questions 20–25)
In Part 4 you will hear a recording of two people talking. It’s an informal conversation
about everyday topics and the two people will talk about their opinions and agree or
disagree on certain points. There are then six statements and you have to decide
whether each statement is right or wrong.
The Riverside Hotel
Tour Guide
The office is (14) .................... the reception desk.
Meals
Breakfast: in the Green Room on the first floor beside the lifts.
Food for trips: collect from the (15) .............................. at 9.00 a.m.
Dinner: hotel restaurant famous for its (16) ................................ dishes.
Riverboat Trip
Day: (17) ................................
Time: afternoon and evening
Cost of Holiday
Everything is included except (18) ................................
Facilities
It’s possible to swim from (19) ................................ a.m. until 10.00 p.m.
pet information for candidates 10
In the example below Lucy and Edward are talking about pocket money. You have to read
the statements (20–22) and decide whether each one is right (A) or wrong (B). In the
exam, there are three more statements like the ones below.
At the end of the Listening test you have six minutes to transfer your answers to the
answer sheet.
Paper 3 Speaking
Time: 10–12 minutes per pair of candidates
In the Speaking test, there are two oral examiners and you take the test in a pair with
another candidate. At centres with an uneven number of candidates, the last pair will be
examined in a group of three. The Speaking test is worth 25% of the total marks.
Part 1
The first part of the test is a general conversation. One of the examiners will talk to each
of you in turn and will ask you for personal details, about your daily routines, likes and
dislikes, etc. The examiner will ask you at some point to spell all or part of your name.
Part 2
In Part 2 you have to take part in a simulated situation with the other candidate. For
example, you may have to make and respond to suggestions, discuss alternatives, make
recommendations and negotiate agreement with your partner.
To help you with this part of the test, the examiner will give you a prompt sheet like the
one below and give you some instructions. In this case, the examiner will tell you that a
friend of yours is planning to spend six months in England to improve her English. You
AB
YES NO
20 At first, Edward thinks Lucy gets enough pocket money.
21 Lucy’s friends get more pocket money than she does.
22 Lucy is happy to pay for her own music.
pet information for candidates 11
have to talk together about the things she will need in England and discuss which are
the most important things she should bring with her.
Part 3
For Part 3 the examiner will give you a colour photograph like the one below. You have to
describe what you can see in the photograph. The examiner then gives your partner a
different colour photograph to describe.
Part 4
In this last part of the test, you have to talk with your partner. The examiner will give
you a subject which is related to the two photographs you described in Part 3. In this
case, the subject is reading and writing. The examiner asks you to talk about the kinds of
reading and writing you did when you were younger and what kinds of reading and
writing you do now.
Preliminary English Test
Why take the Preliminary English Test (PET)?
If you can deal with everyday written and spoken communications (e.g. read simple
books and articles, write simple personal letters, make notes during a meeting), then the
Preliminary English Test (PET) from Cambridge ESOL is the exam for you.
PET is the second level Cambridge ESOL exam. It is an intermediate level exam, at Level
B1 of the Council of Europe’s Common European Framework of Reference for Languages.
PET is a valuable qualification if you want to work or study abroad or to develop a career
in international business.
Studying for PET is a popular way to improve your language skills and use them in a
wide range of contexts. PET covers the four main language skills – reading, writing,
listening and speaking, using material from real life situations. It develops practical
skills, which will be of use in clerical, secretarial and managerial jobs, and in many
industries, such as tourism, where contact with English speakers is required.
PET is available in two formats. You can take the paper and pencil test, or you can take a
computer-based version called CB-PET instead. Please contact your nearest local centre
for details.
Why take a Cambridge ESOL exam?
Develop effective communication skills
• The Cambridge ESOL examinations cover all four language skills – listening, speaking,
reading and writing. They include a range of tasks which assess your ability to use
English, so that you develop the full range of skills you need to communicate
effectively in a variety of contexts.
• Cambridge ESOL examinations are backed by extensive research and
comprehensively trialled to make sure that you get the fairest, most accurate
assessment of your ability and that they are most relevant to the range of uses for
which you need English.
• Universities and employers all over the world recognize Cambridge ESOL exams as a
measure of your achievement in English. Whether you are hoping to study
architecture in Australia or work in IT in Italy, a Cambridge ESOL examination is a
valuable stamp in your passport to success.
University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations (Cambridge ESOL) offers the world’s leading
range of qualifications for learners and teachers of English. Around 1.75 million people
in 135 countries take Cambridge ESOL exams each year.
What does PET involve?
This booklet is a brief introduction to PET. We show examples from each part of the test,
but in some cases we do not show the full text or all the questions.
The table below shows the different parts of PET and how long each paper takes. In PET,
Reading and Writing are combined on one question paper.
* 2 examiners, 2 candidates (2:3 format is used for the last group in a session where necessary)
Name of paper Content Time allowed Marks (% of total)
Paper 1
Reading and Writing
Reading: 5 parts/35 questions
Writing: 3 parts/7 questions
1 hour 30 minutes Reading: 25%
Writing: 25%
Paper 2
Listening
4 parts/25 questions about 35 minutes (including
6 minutes’ transfer time)
25%
Paper 3
Speaking
4 parts 10–12 minutes per pair of
candidates (2:2 format*)
25%
Paper 1 Reading and Writing
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Reading
Part 1 (Questions 1–5)
In the first part of the Reading paper you have to read and understand different kinds of
short texts. These may be notices and signs, packaging information (for example
instructions on a food package or a label on a medicine bottle) and communicative
messages (notes, e-mails, cards and postcards).
In the example below you can see two typical examples of the type of question you will
find in Part 1. Read the text and decide which is the best answer (A, B or C). In the exam
there are three more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Questions 6–10)
In Part 2 you will find five descriptions of people. There are then eight short texts on a
particular topic. This may be goods and services of some kind (for example, purchasing
books, visiting museums, staying in hotels or choosing holidays). You have to match
each person to one of the texts.
Part 3 (Questions 11–20)
In Part 3 you have to read a longer, factual text and look for precise information. The
texts may be brochure extracts, advertisements in magazines and website information.
Before you read the text, there are ten questions which are single-sentence statements
about the text. You have to decide whether each statement is correct or not correct.
Writing
Part 1 (Questions 1–5)
There are five questions to answer in Part 1 of the Writing paper. For each question, you
have one sentence which is complete and a second sentence which has a missing word
or words. You have to complete the second sentence with between one and three words
so that it means the same as the first sentence. All five sentences share a common
theme or topic.
Paper 2 Listening
Time: approx. 35 minutes including 6 minutes’ transfer time
Part 1 (Questions 1–7)
In this part of the test, there are seven short listening texts taken from daily life. These
may be conversations at home or between friends, radio announcements, parts of talks,
exchanges in shops, etc. For each text there is a question and three pictures. You have to
listen to the recording and choose the picture which best answers the question.
Below we give you two examples of typical questions. Read each question and look at
the pictures to get an idea of the kind of conversations which are on the recording and
the information you will need to listen for. You have to choose the right answer
(A, B or C). In the exam, there are five more questions like the ones below.
Part 2 (Questions 8–13)
In Part 2 you have to listen to a longer recording which may be either a monologue, or an
interview with questions from a radio presenter. You hear the recording twice. There are
then six multiple-choice questions with three possible answers for each one.
In the example below, the recording is a review of tonight’s television programmes. You
have to listen and choose the right answer (A, B or C) for each question (8–10). In the
exam, there are three more questions like the ones below.
1 What does the man receive in the post?
AB C
2 What did the man buy?
AB C
8 The film about insects is A badly photographed.
B unsuitable for some people.
C much too long.
9 Tonight's Miller and Edwards A has fewer jokes than usual.
programme B is longer than usual.
C is continued next week.
10 Policewatch is not on television A another programme has taken its place.
tonight because B Andy McKay is ill.
C you can’t see it on Thursdays any more.
pet information for candidates 9
Part 3 (Questions 14–19)
The recording for Part 3 is also a longer text. This may be a radio announcement or a
recorded message which gives information about places and events. Sometimes it is a
talk or a radio programme, in which people are talking about courses, trips or holiday
activities. You will hear the recording twice. On the question paper you will find a page
of notes summarising the content of the text. Six pieces of information are missing from
the notes and you have to listen to the recording, find the correct information and write
it in the numbered gaps.
In the example below, the recording is of a tour guide talking to some guests at their
hotel. There are six spaces (14–19) where information is missing. You have to listen to
the recording and write down the correct information in each space.
Part 4 (Questions 20–25)
In Part 4 you will hear a recording of two people talking. It’s an informal conversation
about everyday topics and the two people will talk about their opinions and agree or
disagree on certain points. There are then six statements and you have to decide
whether each statement is right or wrong.
The Riverside Hotel
Tour Guide
The office is (14) .................... the reception desk.
Meals
Breakfast: in the Green Room on the first floor beside the lifts.
Food for trips: collect from the (15) .............................. at 9.00 a.m.
Dinner: hotel restaurant famous for its (16) ................................ dishes.
Riverboat Trip
Day: (17) ................................
Time: afternoon and evening
Cost of Holiday
Everything is included except (18) ................................
Facilities
It’s possible to swim from (19) ................................ a.m. until 10.00 p.m.
pet information for candidates 10
In the example below Lucy and Edward are talking about pocket money. You have to read
the statements (20–22) and decide whether each one is right (A) or wrong (B). In the
exam, there are three more statements like the ones below.
At the end of the Listening test you have six minutes to transfer your answers to the
answer sheet.
Paper 3 Speaking
Time: 10–12 minutes per pair of candidates
In the Speaking test, there are two oral examiners and you take the test in a pair with
another candidate. At centres with an uneven number of candidates, the last pair will be
examined in a group of three. The Speaking test is worth 25% of the total marks.
Part 1
The first part of the test is a general conversation. One of the examiners will talk to each
of you in turn and will ask you for personal details, about your daily routines, likes and
dislikes, etc. The examiner will ask you at some point to spell all or part of your name.
Part 2
In Part 2 you have to take part in a simulated situation with the other candidate. For
example, you may have to make and respond to suggestions, discuss alternatives, make
recommendations and negotiate agreement with your partner.
To help you with this part of the test, the examiner will give you a prompt sheet like the
one below and give you some instructions. In this case, the examiner will tell you that a
friend of yours is planning to spend six months in England to improve her English. You
AB
YES NO
20 At first, Edward thinks Lucy gets enough pocket money.
21 Lucy’s friends get more pocket money than she does.
22 Lucy is happy to pay for her own music.
pet information for candidates 11
have to talk together about the things she will need in England and discuss which are
the most important things she should bring with her.
Part 3
For Part 3 the examiner will give you a colour photograph like the one below. You have to
describe what you can see in the photograph. The examiner then gives your partner a
different colour photograph to describe.
Part 4
In this last part of the test, you have to talk with your partner. The examiner will give
you a subject which is related to the two photographs you described in Part 3. In this
case, the subject is reading and writing. The examiner asks you to talk about the kinds of
reading and writing you did when you were younger and what kinds of reading and
writing you do now.
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